
Ishan
648 posts

Ishan
@ishankbg
| Computer Programmer | CEO of @htmx_org | Loves Biology and Linguistics


Classical Sanskrit can perhaps be regarded as the best candidate for "descendant" of Vedic Sanskrit. However, Classical Sanskrit also lacks a small number of innovations that are present in Vedic Sanskrit. For example, in Vedic Sanskrit the ending "-āsas" is sometimes used alongside the older ending "-ās" in the nom. pl. for masculine stems ending in -a whereas in Classical Sanskrit only "-ās" is permitted. In Vedic Skt., the instrumental plural in "-ebhis" has been generalized from the pronominal declension and exists alongside the older "-ais" for stems ending in "-a" whereas in Classical Sanskrit only the older form "-ais" it permitted. So this implies that some of the analogical leveling seen in Vedic may never have developed in the OIA dialects spoken by the "śiṣṭa-s." However, these are fairly subtle differences, and practically speaking it's usually sufficient to refer to "Vedic Sanskrit" broadly for all early OIA dialects and view both the Prakrits and Classical Sanskrit as its descendants.


Vedic Sanskrit bhadró bhadráyā sácamāna ā́gāt svásāraṃ jāró abhí eti paścā́t। supraketaír dyúbhir Agnír vitíṣṭhan rúśadbhir várṇair abhí rāmám asthāt॥ (RV 10.3.3) Classical ("Standard Pāṇinian") Sanskrit: bhadró bhadráyā sácamāna ā́gāt svásāraṃ jāró 'bhyèti paścā́t। supraketaír dyúbhir Agnír vitíṣṭhamāno rócamānair várṇair rāmám abhyàsthāt॥ Mahārāṣṭrī ("Standard Dramatic/Literary") Prakrit (~5th c. AD): bhaddo bhaddāe saʸamāno āgaʸo (āʸaʸo) sasaṃ jāro abhiei pacchā suppakeehi jūhi (joāhi) Agaṇī (Aggī) viṭṭhaṃto roʸantehi vaṇṇehi rāmam abhiṭṭhiʸo English: "The auspicious male (i.e. Agní), accompanied by the auspicious female (i.e. Uṣás), has arrived. The paramour follows after his sister. Agní, spreading with his luminous glow (or alongside the clear skies), has overcome the night with his brilliant colors." Although rāmá- is not typically used in the sense "darkness/night" in Classical Sanskrit and sasā- ("sister", svasṛ+ḍā, cf. svasrāder ḍā Hem. 8.3.35) is marginal in Prakrit (having largely been displaced by bhagiṇī-/bhaïṇī-/bahiṇī-), I have retained the original wording as closely as possible, with alterations made only where necessitated by grammar. For example, the verb-root √ruś in the sense "to shine" is obsolete or non-productive in Classical Sanskrit, so I have replaced it with √ruc, which is listed as anudāttet "rúcÃ," dīptāv abhiprītau ca (to shine or to be agreeable/pleasing) and therefore takes ātmanepada endings by 1.3.12. The affix -ŚátṚ̃ takes parasmaipada-sañjñā by laḥ parasmaipadam while -ŚānáC (and KānáC) take ātmanepada-sañjñā by taṅ-ānāv ātmanepadam, so "rúcÃ" must take -ŚānáC. Although the vikaraṇa -ŚaP by kartari śap is pit and hence anudātta (anudattau suppitau 3.1.4) this vikaraṇa will make the root adupadeśa such that -ŚānáC will also become anudātta (by tāsy-anudātten-ṅid-ad-upadeśāt lasārvadhātukam anudāttam ah-nviṅoḥ, 6.1.186). This will override the cit-svara (6.1.163) of ŚānáC and the dhātu will retain its udātta (6.1.162), resulting in rócamāna-. I could theoretically replace rúśadbhiḥ by rúcadbhiḥ and justify it through the paribhāṣā "anudāttettva-lakṣaṇam ātmanepadam anityam," though I'd rather not employ grammatically contentious forms. Likewise, vi-√sthā must take ātmanepada endings as per sam-ava-pra-vibhyas sthaḥ, resluting in vitíṣṭhamānaḥ for Vedic vitíṣṭhan. Prakrit grammar is freer and -nta and -māṇa can be used interchangeably for -ŚátṚ̃ and -ŚānáC (nta-māṇau, śatrānaśaḥ), so I have applied the suffixes in accordance with the original Vedic mantra. I fully agree that the Sanskrit of RV is indeed more archaic than standard Sanskrit, but the point highlighted here is that Vedic Sanskrit is just barely a distinct language from Classical Sanskrit and both languages ultimately belong to the same grammatical and typological category (i.e. Old Indo-Aryan). In contrast, Prakrits are more distinct and belong to a separate class known as Middle Indo-Aryan in which the dual number has collapsed, the dative has largely merged with the genitive, there is a tendency to merge the optative mood w/ the imperative mood (particularly in later MIA), intervocalic stops undergo voicing→ fricativization→ elision, consonant clusters are typically replaced by geminates, the past tense system has largely been reworked (i.e. the perfect tense disappears relatively early in MIA and although aorist and imperfect survive a little longer, nearly all finite past forms are replaced by past participial constructions in later MIA), the declensional system has been simplified (albeit with far greater dialectical variation), etc. Cockney English to SSBE is not a very accurate comparison for OIA to early MIA (early inscriptional Prakrit, "Ārṣa" Ardhamāgadhī, Pāḷi, etc.) and clearly not an appropriate for OIA to later MIA (Dramatic Prakrits). Homeric Greek vs. Attic Greek would be a better comparison for Vedic vs. Classical Sanskrit while Chaucerian English vs. Modern Formal English would be a better comparison for OIA vs. MIA with Shakespearean English representing early MIA.

@PrasunNagar I don't understand people claim Sanskrit was never language of common people then how majority Indians are still speaking languages originated and influenced from Sanskrit





















The fact that Mycenean Greeks had zero steppe as did the Iranians and the Indians have attested inscriptions before any steppe ancestry should falsify the steppe hypothesis for good. The three civilizations with bronze age IE literature had zero steppe ancestry!




@simianfromspace @Vuyo__ You are hallucinating about mounds and imaginary Indo-Europeans. 0% steppe ancestry among the ancient Greeks, increases slightly over time after the Romans and the Slavs.


