𝐵𝓁𝒶𝒸𝓀𝓁𝒾𝑔𝒽𝓉 🇳🇬♰

If people would take the time to learn the difference between how Scripture uses a term and how you use it in your everyday experience, a lot of confusion would disappear. When Hebrews 4:15 says Jesus was tempted in every way we are, yet without sin. People read that and immediately map their own experience onto Him. Our temptations arise from a fallen nature, disordered passions, internal pulls, and a will already bent toward sin. So the assumption becomes that Jesus must have had the same inner experience as us in order to genuinely sympathise with ours or be “truly human.” He didn’t. Jesus has no fallen nature. There is no disordered appetite in Him, no internal constituency that sin could appeal to. The incarnation does not require that to be real. Impeccability isn’t a deficiency in His humanity. So what is Hebrews actually saying if it doesn’t mean temptation in the modern usage. It means Jesus faced the full external force of temptation of what it means to be a human, deprivation, suffering, betrayal, physical agony, the sustained pressure to abandon obedience to His Father and He bore all of it. That means He sympathises with your weakness, your hurt, your betrayal, your tiredness, your thirst and hunger. And He does so as your great High Priest.​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​​ And before someone says He had to feel the pull toward lust, theft, or deception to truly be human, that is not what Hebrews is saying and it fundamentally misunderstands both the text and what humanity was designed to be. Disordered passions are not a feature of humanity, they are a consequence of the fall. Adam for example, before the fall was truly human without them just as Jesus, the last Adam, was truly human without them. The desire to steal, to lie, to lust. these are not marks of genuine humanity, they are the marks of fallen humanity. Ordered passions rightly directed toward God and neighbor are what humanity was made for. Jesus had those perfectly. Jesus could have appreciated the beauty of a woman (after all He made her) without that being sinful any more than appreciating a sunset is sinful. However could He have been tempted to “desire” a woman. No. His telos was never an earthly marriage. He came for His bride the church. If this helped you, please do share it.

If this were true, Jesus wouldn't be qualified to be our advocate. Your tweet denies the hypostatic union, because while Jesus was fully God with no blemish of sin in his soul, he was also fully human, and what it means to be fully human after the fall is to have the nature 1/

Was Jesus tempted to desire a woman?

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