
eCommKen
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eCommKen
@eCommKen
$Billions in CPG Sales | Hundreds of Millions in profits negotiated | Results guaranteed | HMU at https://t.co/HbSVd6PRUh to see how I can help.











Okay Jesus Christ is God of the Old Testament He is the Lord, Savior, and Redeemer of the New Testament He lived a sinless life He performed countless miracles—raising the dead, turning water into wine, and feeding thousands with a few loaves and fishes He suffered in Gethsemane and later died on the cross He suffered and bled from every pore to pay the price of our sins He was resurrected three days later I know—pure heresy, right?


Mormons are as committed to Joseph Smith as Catholics are to Mary. The devotion is weird.

Disney nos vendió la misma animación durante años...



I appreciate the kind words. Our hearts are also filled with love for those honestly seeking Jesus Christ and His gospel. So I'm going to ask this with all sincerity because I would genuinely like to know how you understand these NT verses that seem so clear to me to be at odds with the concept of the trinity. First off, my understanding of the Trinity in modern Christendom is that there are 3... aspects? of a single Being, who is God. They share the same essence/substance. (Please correct me if I have misrepresented that definition). But in the great intercessory prayer of John 17 (I'm quoting from KJV, btw), Christ is praying to the father (verse 1). "Glorify thy Son", he says, "that thy Son also may glorify thee." And then he continues in this discussion, speaking with the Father and seeming to identify the Son as a distinct personage, separate from the Father. If they are not 2 distinct people, this seems to me to be both a confusing and unnecessary dialogue with...himself? And I could almost buy into the idea of the trinity and sort of overlook this clear communication between two people, except that Christ then begins to speak of those that the Father gave to Him from "out of the world" (vs. 6). And then he says: 18. As thou hast sent me into the world, even so have I also sent them into the world. 19. And for their sakes I sanctify myself, that they also might be sanctified through the truth. 20. Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; 21. THAT THEY ALL MAY BE ONE; AS THOU, FATHER, ART IN ME, AND I IN THEE, THAT THEY ALSO MAY BE ONE IN US: THAT THE WORLD MAY BELIEVE THAT THOU HAST SENT ME. [emphasis added] 22. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: 23. I in them, and thou in me... I just don't see any other way to read this than as a symbolic "one", meaning a "one in purpose", or a "one in symbolic unity"....because there's no way that I can *literally* be the same person as Christ when he says "as thou, Father, art in me, and I in Thee, that they also may be one in us..." And then you have the baptism of Christ, where the Father literally speaks from Heaven in Matthew 3:17, "And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased." Was Christ speaking to/about himself from the heavens? Why? And what about "the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him" (vs. 16)? We have an actual manifestation of all 3 members of the godhead in distinct form in these verses. And then again at the mount of transfiguration in Matthew 17, "...and behold, a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him." (vs. 5). Why does he need to speak in the 3rd person to refer to himself? The prophecies of the Old Testament being fulfilled should be sufficient if he's truly the Messiah. And yet we have multiple instances of him praying to....himself? And hearing himself speak from heaven to himself? Why? I would much rather take the scriptures at their word to the best of my understanding. Christ has a Father. It's the same Father as our Father. Christ Himself said so: "Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ASCEND UNTO MY FATHER, AND YOUR FATHER; AND TO MY GOD, AND YOUR GOD." (John 20:17). Again I'm genuinely trying to understand. And I hope you can appreciate how challenging it can be for me to sit here and read the ACTUAL WORDS OF CHRIST, and draw a very direct and clear conclusion from these words....only to be told I'm not Christian because other "Christians" point to words that were not Christ's and came hundreds of years after he Preached to his disciples. I'm not here to debate this, and I'm not trying to play games. But how can you read those verses above and interpret it any other way than the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost as being 3 distinct beings who are unified in PURPOSE for the eternal salvation of mankind?














