MedDxDaily

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MedDxDaily

@MedDxDaily

Clinical cases. Sharp diagnosis. High-yield medicine for MBBS, NEXT & NEET-PG Follow me on Facebook as well

เข้าร่วม Nisan 2026
103 กำลังติดตาม190 ผู้ติดตาม
ทวีตที่ปักหมุด
هاني
هاني@ajlkfad2333·
Diagnosis: Acute Streptococcal Pharyngotonsillitis ➤ Etiology: Group A Streptococcus (GAS). ➤ Key Features: Fever + Exudative Tonsillitis + Tender Lymphadenopathy. ➤ Management: Confirmed via Rapid Antigen Detection Test (RADT) or throat culture; treated with Penicillin or Amoxicillin.
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
A 7-year-old child presents with: • Fever • Sore throat • Difficulty swallowing On examination: • Enlarged tonsils with white patches • Tender cervical lymph nodes What’s the most likely diagnosis? 🤔👇 @3DMedico1 @AbhishekUp52351 @ChShafiullah15 @ajlkfad2333 @daoo100 @docakx @dermatology @DocPriyamMD @Doctors_GUILD @Dr_Shiv_kumar_ @drabdulhameed07 @DrArslan480 @drkeithsiau @DrMedica_13 @drobiy12 @DrsansariOrd @drsthanus @drxmelodyy @EricMbuyamba @hemo_shk
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هاني
هاني@ajlkfad2333·
➡ Diagnosis: B) GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease) Clinical Rationale ➡ Pathophysiology: Reflux of gastric acid into the esophagus due to Lower Esophageal Sphincter (LES) dysfunction. ➡ Key Features: Burning pain (pyrosis) triggered by meals and gravity (lying flat), relieved by neutralizing acid. Investigations ➡ Initial Step: Clinical history and a trial of PPI therapy. ➡ Gold Standard: 24-hour pH monitoring to quantify acid exposure. ➡ Endoscopy (OGD): Indicated for "red flags" (weight loss, dysphagia) or to detect Barrett’s esophagus. ➡ Manometry: Used to evaluate LES pressure and motility. Management ➡ Lifestyle: Weight reduction, tobacco cessation, and elevating the head of the bed. ➡ Dietary: Avoiding triggers (caffeine, chocolate, fatty foods) and avoiding meals 3 hours before sleep. ➡ Medical: Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs) are the first-line (e.g., Omeprazole); H2-receptor antagonists for milder cases. ➡ Surgical: Laparoscopic Nissen Fundoplication for refractory symptoms or large hiatal hernias.
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
A 35-year-old male presents with: • Burning chest pain • Worse after meals • Worse on lying down • Relieved by antacids What’s the diagnosis? 🤔 A) Peptic ulcer disease B) GERD C) Gastritis D) MI 👉 What's ur diagnosis 👇 @3DMedico1 @AbhishekUp52351 @ChShafiullah15 @ajlkfad2333 @daoo100 @docakx @dermatology @DocPriyamMD @Doctors_GUILD @Dr_Shiv_kumar_ @drabdulhameed07 @DrArslan480 @drkeithsiau @DrMedica_13 @drobiy12 @DrsansariOrd @drsthanus @drxmelodyy @EricMbuyamba @hemo_shk
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هاني
هاني@ajlkfad2333·
➔ Diagnosis: Streptococcal tonsillitis (Option B). ➔ Key Signs: High fever, tonsillar exudates, and tender cervical adenopathy. ➔ Age Group: Peak incidence occurs in school-aged children (5–15 years). ➔ Action: Requires antibiotic therapy (e.g., Penicillin) to prevent complications like Rheumatic Fever.
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
A 6-year-old child presents with: • Fever • Sore throat • Difficulty swallowing On examination: • Enlarged tonsils with white patches • Tender cervical lymph nodes What’s the diagnosis? 🤔 A) Viral pharyngitis B) Streptococcal tonsillitis C) Diphtheria D) Infectious mononucleosis 👉 Answer below 👇 @3DMedico1 @AbhishekUp52351 @ChShafiullah15 @ajlkfad2333 @daoo100 @docakx @dermatology @DocPriyamMD @Doctors_GUILD @Dr_Shiv_kumar_ @drabdulhameed07 @DrArslan480 @drkeithsiau @DrMedica_13 @drobiy12 @DrsansariOrd @drsthanus @drxmelodyy @EricMbuyamba @hemo_shk
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: D — Narcissistic personality disorder ✅ Explanation: Key features described: High sense of self-importance / self-esteem (grandiosity) Hypersensitivity to criticism (cannot tolerate it) These are classic for narcissistic personality disorder, which includes: Need for admiration Lack of empathy Sense of entitlement Why others are incorrect: Schizoid personality ❌ → Detached, prefers isolation, not grandiose Paranoid personality ❌ → Suspicious, distrustful Histrionic personality ❌ → Attention-seeking, emotional, not necessarily grandiose
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Dr Ajay yadav
Dr Ajay yadav@SameerYogi14·
Q. A person has a high sense of self-esteem and is unable to take criticism. What is the diagnosis? A. Schizoid personality B. Paranoid personality C. Histrionic personality D. Narcissistic personality
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: C — Ethosuximide ✅ Explanation: Absence seizures are characterized by brief loss of awareness (“staring spells”) with 3 Hz spike-and-wave pattern on EEG. Why Ethosuximide? Drug of choice for pure absence seizures Mechanism: blocks T-type Ca²⁺ channels in thalamus, which are responsible for absence seizure activity Other options: Valproate → Also effective, preferred if mixed seizure types (absence + tonic-clonic) Phenytoin / Carbamazepine ❌ → Can worsen absence seizures
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Mohammedology Rx
Mohammedology Rx@Dr_Mohammedolog·
Patient with epilepsy (absence seizure). Drug of choice? A) Phenytoin B) Carbamazepine C) Ethosuximide D) Valproate
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Dr. Medica🩺
Dr. Medica🩺@DrMedica_13·
Did u know? 🫶🥀🫶
Dr. Medica🩺 tweet media
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: B — Benzathine penicillin G ✅ Explanation: Rheumatic heart disease requires secondary prophylaxis to prevent recurrent Rheumatic fever. Recurrences worsen cardiac damage, so continuous antibiotic prophylaxis is essential. Drug of choice: Benzathine penicillin G (IM) every 3–4 weeks Long-acting Most effective in preventing recurrence Why others are incorrect: Amoxicillin / Azithromycin / Ceftriaxone ❌ → Not used for long-term secondary prophylaxis (may be used in acute infections or alternatives in allergy)
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Modern Health
Modern Health@modernHealthMe·
RHD patient needs secondary prevention. Drug of choice? A. Amoxicillin B. Benzathine penicillin G C. Azithromycin D. Ceftriaxone
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
@ajlkfad2333 The correct answer is: C — High risk of ocular involvement ✅ Explanation: A vesicular rash on the tip of the nose is known as Hutchinson’s sign. It occurs in Herpes zoster ophthalmicus, caused by reactivation of Varicella zoster virus.
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هاني
هاني@ajlkfad2333·
Q//A patient has vesicular rash on the tip of the nose with eye pain. What does this indicate? A. Low risk of eye involvement B. Trigeminal nerve sparing C. High risk of ocular involvement D. Bacterial infection
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: B — RIPE therapy ✅ Explanation: First-line treatment of Tuberculosis is a combination regimen to: Prevent resistance Ensure complete eradication RIPE regimen: R → Rifampicin I → Isoniazid P → Pyrazinamide E → Ethambutol Regimen structure: Intensive phase (2 months): RIPE Continuation phase (4 months): Rifampicin + Isoniazid
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هاني
هاني@ajlkfad2333·
Q//First-line treatment of TB? A. Isoniazid only B. RIPE therapy C. Steroids D. Surgery
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
@modernHealthMe The correct answer is: A — Methotrexate ✅ Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis causes progressive joint damage and deformities (e.g., ulnar deviation, swan-neck deformity). To prevent progression and joint destruction, early use of a DMARD is essential.
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Modern Health
Modern Health@modernHealthMe·
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis shows this deformity. Best drug to prevent progression? A. Methotrexate B. Hydroxychloroquine C. Sulfasalazine D. Leflunomide
Modern Health tweet media
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
Correct answer: B) NSAIDs (Ibuprofen) Explanation (high-yield concept) The ductus arteriosus remains patent in fetal life mainly due to prostaglandin E2 (PGE₂). NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen, Indomethacin) inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) → ↓ prostaglandin synthesis → ↓ PGE₂ → premature closure of ductus arteriosus Why others are incorrect: Heparin → anticoagulant, no effect on ductus Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) → minimal peripheral COX inhibition; not classically associated (though sometimes used postnatally to close PDA, not a typical cause in utero MCQs) Folic acid → vitamin, no role
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Dr Zahoor Ahmed
Dr Zahoor Ahmed@ZahoorAhmed1450·
Which drug causes premature closure of ductus arteriosus? A) Heparin B) NSAIDs (Ibuprofen) C) Paracetamol D) Folic acid
Dr Zahoor Ahmed tweet media
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Sir Payoo🥼🩺
Sir Payoo🥼🩺@payoo241·
Q// Which bone is fractured? 🤔 A. Femur B. Clavicle C. Scapula D. Humerus
Sir Payoo🥼🩺 tweet media
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: C — Epinephrine ✅ Explanation: This presentation is classic for Anaphylaxis: Hives (urticaria) Wheezing (bronchospasm) Hypotension (shock) Why Epinephrine FIRST? It is life-saving and first-line because it: Causes bronchodilation (relieves wheezing) Causes vasoconstriction (raises BP) Reduces further mediator release
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Dr Scarface📍🩺
Dr Scarface📍🩺@king_pearxe·
A patient develops hives, wheezing , and hypotension after eating peanuts. What is the FIRST medication? A. Antihistamine B. Steroids C. Epinephrine D. Fluids
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: B — From monkeys during hunting ✅ Explanation: Human immunodeficiency virus originated from simian immunodeficiency viruses (SIV) found in primates. The most accepted theory is zoonotic transmission: Humans were exposed to infected blood while hunting or butchering primates (especially chimpanzees). This allowed the virus to cross species and adapt to humans.
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Modern Health
Modern Health@modernHealthMe·
How did HIV first spread to humans? A. Mosquito bite B. From monkeys during hunting C. Through water D. Through air
Modern Health tweet media
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: C — Voriconazole ✅ Explanation: Invasive aspergillosis is a severe, life-threatening fungal infection, especially in immunocompromised patients. Voriconazole is the first-line drug of choice because: Superior efficacy against Aspergillus Better survival outcomes compared to amphotericin B Good tissue penetration (especially lungs, CNS) Why others are incorrect: Ketoconazole / Clotrimazole → Used mainly for superficial fungal infections ❌ Amphotericin B → Alternative or second-line (used if intolerance or resistance) ❌
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Safiullah
Safiullah@ChShafiullah15·
What is the first-line drug in the treatment of invasive aspergillosis ? A- Ketoconazole B- Clotrimazole C- Voriconazole D- Amphotericin B
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
@DrsansariOrd The correct answer is: a. Thiamine deficiency (Vitamin B1) ✅ Explanation: Wernicke encephalopathy and Korsakoff syndrome are caused by deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B1). They are often seen in chronic alcoholism due to poor nutrition and impaired absorption.
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Haji Siyamuddin ANSARI
Haji Siyamuddin ANSARI@DrsansariOrd·
Wernicke’s and Korsakoff occurs due to deficiency of❓ a. Thiamine deficiency b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin A
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MedDxDaily
MedDxDaily@MedDxDaily·
The correct answer is: d) Hydrocephalus Reasoning : Progressive head enlargement → indicates increasing intracranial pressure over time Frontal bossing → typical of chronic raised intracranial pressure in infants Widely spaced sutures → due to expansion of skull bones (since sutures are not fused yet) These features are classic for Hydrocephalus, where excess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leads to ventricular dilation and skull enlargement in infants. Why others are incorrect: a) Microcephaly → small head, not enlarged b) Craniosynostosis → premature suture closure → restricted skull growth, not widened sutures c) Meningocele → localized protrusion, not diffuse head enlargement
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MedLearn Hub
MedLearn Hub@MedLearnHub·
Q. An infant presents with progressive head enlargement, frontal bossing, and widely spaced sutures. What is the diagnosis? a) Microcephaly. b) Craniosynostosis. c) Meningocele. d) Hydrocephalus.
MedLearn Hub tweet media
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