Alexander Bogomolny

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Alexander Bogomolny

Alexander Bogomolny

@CutTheKnotMath

Freelance mathematician and educational web developer. I am a proud Israeli American, with love and respect for both countries.

NJ, USA Katılım Aralık 2009
342 Takip Edilen20.6K Takipçiler
Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@KriteeshP What this shows is that "P interior to KLM" => "P interior to the medial traingle" But this is trivial because the former is inscribed in the latter.
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कृतीश पाराशर 🇮🇳
@CutTheKnotMath For P to be interior of KLM. AP > AK, implies AP > AA'/2, implies AP/AA' >1/2 Hence AP/AA' , BP/BB', CP/CC' all must be more than 1/2 together. If AP/AA' < 1/2, the area covered by all possible P could be found by plotting AP/AA' = 1/2, which gives a line parallel to base BC.
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कृतीश पाराशर 🇮🇳
@CutTheKnotMath 1/4. Could be redefined as CP > CM, which is redefined as P divides AA' in ratio k : 1, where k > 1. Limiting case is the ratio 1:1. In case of 1:1 we get locus of P as a line parallel to the opposite side BC Applying Thales theorem and similarity, area is 1/4 for each vertex.
कृतीश पाराशर 🇮🇳 tweet media
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Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@KriteeshP I've nothing against (I am all for) the Indians' pride in their culture and history. But, for crying out loud, did anybody hear the word probability c. 600 BCE.
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Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@dasanil @nntaleb @gcfr20 That is right. I now examples of statements whose "normal" proofs are rather convoluted, while, with a probabilistic interpretation, you have something short and elegant. E.g., #160352" target="_blank" rel="nofollow noopener">math.stackexchange.com/questions/1602…
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Anil Das
Anil Das@dasanil·
@nntaleb @CutTheKnotMath @gcfr20 I confess the implication of the distribution escapes me, since the actual inequality doesn’t depend on the distribution at all.
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Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@dasanil @nntaleb @gcfr20 I think you are trying to prove the inequality; I only asked about its possible probabilistic interpretation. Honestly, I indeed thought of using this interpretation for proving the inequality. Your ideas may be the right way of pursuing that goal
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Anil Das
Anil Das@dasanil·
@CutTheKnotMath @nntaleb @gcfr20 Minimum variance is achieved when you can bunch the value together as close as possible is a probabilistic interpretation, no? twitter.com/dasanil/status…
Anil Das@dasanil

@nntaleb @CutTheKnotMath @gcfr20 My approach is (not rigorous, but can be made so) is this: WLOG, assume x_n > 0. Variance is minimized when all positive x = x_n, and all negative x also equal. i.e. x_i = x_n for i >= n, and for j < n, x_j = - (x_n) * (n/n-1). Thus LHS becomes 2n/(2n-1) * x_n^2. QED

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Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@nntaleb @gcfr20 I have a proof for this inequality. There is no doubt that the inequality holds under the stated condition. I was curious whether it admits a probabilistic interpretation
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Alexander Bogomolny
Alexander Bogomolny@CutTheKnotMath·
@nntaleb @gcfr20 Note that you never used (attached). If you did, you would not have any mildly misleading minus signs on the right
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